Jehu,
It would appear that the two of you our more interested in a contentious argument, than in a rational one; nevertheless, I will respond to your concerns.
Thanks, but aren’t you judging a bit too soon. Shall we dispel with psychoanalyzing and projecting our unfounded opinions on to each another; unless you can actually experience from my perspective so to speak. You did ask me to temporarily dispel my beliefs, so I have to necessarily begin from the very bottom.
I put forward the dictionary definition of the terms ‘cause’ and ‘effect’, not because I believe them to be the definitive definitions, but because we must begin our enquiry somewhere, and there is no better place to begin than with the conventionally prescribed meanings.
Yes, we must begin somewhere, so I personally though the best place to begin with would be the “Iâ€, because if that is an illusion, then absolutely all that the “I†arrives at would be an illusion.
Further, while it is the function of a philosopher to elucidate upon the meanings of such terms, it is not their function to redefine them, and in the case where we are able to develop a definitive meaning, that definitive meaning must accommodate all of the term’s conventionally prescribed uses; else it is a futile endeavour.
So I take it you will not redefine any terms, but of course we have to come to mutual agreement of its use.
S: So that makes cause dependant on the effect, just as effect is dependant on the cause. So why is cause real and effect an illusion? (you mention so below)
J: Let me put it this way, can there be a dream without that there is also a dreamer, and are not the two interdependent, and do we not say that the dreamer is real, and that the dream is only an illusion?
Not me. You simply assume ‘me’ in your “weâ€, hence I said you judge too quickly. This is the reason that I have to necessarily say something of where I come from, since there is no way I can simply say a yes/no to your propositions.
A dream and a dreamer are necessarily there and interdependent, hence neither can be without the other, hence either both should be real, or both illusions (which is impossible BTW); I can’t see how taking any one of them as illusion makes the other real, or vice versa. If knowledge is an illusion, then by what means of certainty is one cognizant?
A ‘universe of discourse’ may be anything that we wish to talk about as having an distinct existence, for example, ‘all human being living or dead’, or ‘ all left handed piano players now living in Boston’, or ‘all existents’; which would be the highest possible ‘universe of discourse’. Now, we have already established that there is one continuous existence, and so that existence is Cleary an entity, as apposed to a quality or relation.
No… WE… that is you and I, have not agreed if there is ONE continuous existence, for I find it quite difficult to consider Existence as ONE, (if we mean the same when we say ‘existence’ that is), because from THAT perspective, “it†is neither one, nor not one; in fact, none of any attributes do apply, including ‘continuous’. The moment we REALLY do, (of course we can talk about IT), we are forgetting a crucial fact of ‘being’, ‘existing’, that it takes TWO to tango in any which case, in any which world, (in your case, awareness AND knowledge), Hence ‘existence’ cannot be an Entity, or a Thing; which are the terms I use to express any-THING finite in the general sense of expression.
Now you are starting to get the point, the notion of change is simply not logically tenable; but I refuse to speculate upon how the appearance of change comes about, although I assure you that it will become clear if and when the enquiry progresses. At this point, we must simple come to grips with the fact that an effect and its causes cannot be separate things.
Ok then, please go on. But I do speculate on how things come about, otherwise I wouldn’t know how cognition comes about, or if it is indeed cognition or an illusion, or say, “could I rely on it�