xpsyuvz,
DQ: The very idea of an objective world carries with it the assumption that space and time are objective as well.
xpsyuvz: As far as I can tell, the only way we can have any meaningful idea of what “space†and “time†might possibly mean, is by relating them to (changing) forms -- i.e. things we’ve been describing as subjective. So in a realm without forms, the ideas of “space†and “time†seem to have no understandable meaning.
Agreed. It should be stressed again that the objective world that I have been talking about is a world of forms beyond the mind which more or less resembles the world that we experience in our subjective consciousness. This is how most people conceive of the situation - namely, that the world we experience is an imitation or reflection of an objective world beyond the mind. It is not a conception that I subscribe to.
And since here they are meaningless, there is no reason to assume that the formless realm requires it. (You can try to explain further what you mean by what space and time mean in a formless realm, but I don’t think you’ll get anywhere without resorting to the realm of forms).
Agreed.
DQ: We can't have it both ways. We can't argue for the existence of an objective world and then lay down the law that we can't logically reason about this objective world. That is a case of having one's cake and eating it too.
xpsyuvz: I don’t mind reasoning about the unknowable formless realm as long as our reasons are sound. It’s just that since we’re talking about something that has no forms, this seems to suggest that there is very little we can assume for sure about it.
There are plenty of conclusions that can be deduced. For example, if is true that the world beyond the mind is without form, then we can conclude that there is no objective world, no God, no computer, no virtual reality machine, no dreamer, etc, beyond the mind. Thousands of deluded views are successfully undermined in an instant.
DQ: It doesn't matter what the mind knows or doesn't know, it is still the case that an object cannot exist without its parts. This kind of logic is absolute. It all applies to all things necessarily, both knowable and unknowable…
xpsyuvz: The idea of a “part†seems to get it’s meaning from objects that have form. Meanwhile if something has no form, what possible parts could it have? (Any potential answers I can think of, always fall back into the realm of forms.)
Since the idea of “parts†is meaningless in the context of an unknowable, formless thing, it seems like there is no reason to assume that it must have them.
Agreed. If a thing lacks form, then, by default, it doesn't exist. So to talk about whether it has or doesn't have parts would be meaningless.
DQ: Now you might want to argue differently, but to do so you would have to apply logic to these unknowable things, which would immediately put you in a self-contradictory position.
Again, we cannot have it both ways. Either we apply logic to these unknowable things and do it properly, or we cease doing it altogether
xpsyuvz: The logic I’m applying is basically noticing that something can’t be understood, and realizing that therefore you can’t automatically assume it requires things that understandable things seem to require.
Well, now we've moved onto a different issue. The formlessness of what is beyond the mind can indeed be understood, so there is no reason to bring up the issue of understanding and non-understanding.
Meanwhile you seem to be improperly applying logic, by jumping to the conclusion that unknowable/formless things require the same things that forms require.
It might be interesting to see your explanation as to why all unknowable things require parts or causes -- but without basing your reasoning on examples that have forms.
An existing thing necessarily has a form, regardless of whether it is knowable or unknowable, and therefore it is necessarily composed of parts.
To talk about unknowable things beyond the mind having or not having parts is meaningless, because there cannot be any things beyond the mind in the first place. The very formlessness of what is beyond the mind means that there are no things in this realm at all, either knowable or unknowable.
My prediction is you will either end up resorting to forms as the foundation of the reasoning (which will most likely discredit the reasoning) or you will end up with “it’s just fundamental, and can’t be explained†(which to me suggests you may just believe it for no logical reason, but rather some unconscious faith/motive).
I don't think you really understand my thinking on this issue as yet. Hopefully, my responses in this post will help you see more clearly where I am coming from.
DQ: I don't have a problem with the idea of causality stretching back forever. What problems do you have with it?
xpsyuvz: My opinion isn’t too solid here, but this is roughly how I see it…
To me, it seems for the mind to understand things, it has to start from somewhere and work from there -- so the idea of never starting seems a bit incoherent. If you ask why is something (e.g. today) the way it is, and you get an infinite regress for an answer, you’ve not really come up with a final answer.
That is only a problem if you are wanting this final answer to involve some kind of finite basis to Reality, or some kind of concrete starting point - something that your ego can grasp hold of in the belief that it is fundamental. Once a person disabuses himself of that illusion, then accepting that Reality is timeless and that the past stretches back infinitely ceases to be a problem.
There is no underlying foundation to Reality. There is no part of Reality which can be held up as the ultimate basis. Instead, Reality itself - the totality of all there is - is the ultimate basis.
Put it slightly differently: If we say for today to exist, yesterday needs to occur, and for yesterday to occur the day before that needs to occur, etc, etc… with no end to this chain, then since it has no end, today should never be able to occur.
Meanwhile the understandable answers for “why today is in the form it is in“, seems to rely on finite forms (where maybe the answers will always be incomplete).
So to give the infinite history idea a less-abstract context with forms, let’s say one form in this present day is some immortal being saying, “one“, and yesterday he said, “twoâ€, and the day before that he said “threeâ€â€¦ (so he’s been counting backwards to “one“, day by day). If he had always been doing that and there was no beginning, then why would he finish this task today? For example, let’s say his immortal friend said, “two†today, and has similarly been counting backwards (at the same rate and increments as the first). Since infinity isn’t a specific amount (where infinity +1 is infinite and infinity +2 is equally infinite), things just don’t seem to add up for there to be specific forms appearing at specific times with an infinite history.
This is a contrived problem generated out of a mathematical quirk. If instead of counting, the immortal being emitted a beep each day, then the reaching of today would pose no problem. Having him count instead only serves to introduce a manufactured problem associated with the mathematical concept of infinity. It doesn't have any real impact on the reality of Nature's beginninglessness.
I don't see how it would even be possible for an immortal being to count backwards towards one because it would be impossible for him to decide which number to associate with a particular day. If he were to start from the present and work backwards, counting the days back into the beginningless past, there would be no problem. He could just keep going back indefinitely. But going the other way is intrinsically impossible.
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