Because of the dithering? No. Our positions are both self-evident. However, one is true to self, the other true to nothing.suergaz,
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suergaz: Proof must of logical necessity be extraneous to the fact?
Yes, that pretty much covers the definition of "proof": proof requires an argument that is substantially different than the proposition. But I think what you are trying to ask is whether or not all propositions need proof. No, they do not. Axioms do not require proof, but that is only because they are self-evident; since there is so much dithering over the inherent existence of things, I think we can safely say that neither position is self-evident.
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suergaz: The prefixes entail eachother, infinitely.
I don't think you spend enough time on your posts. I paid for an argument; this is a contradiction. ("No it isn't.")
Seriously, did you miss the English class when the teacher explained what homonyms are? Two words can sound the same, even have the same spelling, and be entirely different -- what's more, the same goes for prefixes!
I did not say they are not different, but they entail eachother in the word 'indivisible' if one considers what is indivisible.
Do you not know the meaning of the word 'entail'?Quote:
It would be philosophically unacceptable for you, I suppose, to suppose that monism and pluralism entail eachother?
You're talking Newspeak. War is Peace. Freedom is Slavery. Black is White.
Sounded better than? What sounds better than the truth?Quote:
s: I was astounded by your expression, not the concept. The whole avoids nothing.
Am I not permitted to use metaphors? I was not trying to personify the whole; "avoiding" merely sounded better than "not".
If you own it, look it up. A quick net search will give it to you otherwise.Quote:
Did you ever read 'The prophet' from Zarathustra?
Yes, but refresh my memory. I read Zarathustra over two years ago.
suergaz: There is no conflation possible.
How is conflation not possible? There are two different definitions, and you are trying to say they are really both the same. Seems like a clear-cut case of conflation.
It is actual, not possible.
There is a broader spectrum of meaning for indivisibility than infinity?I wanted to side-step this, but you keep indicating the next sentence is important:
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suer: There is only one thing indivisble: infinity.
Or the primitive, billiard-ball, model of an atom. Or a universe made up of a single substance. Indivisible has a broader spectrum of meaning than as a specialist term for use in mathematics.
What you mean is my meaning of the word inherent restricts your own. David is whining about the same thing. You'll get over it (in a manner of speaking)Quote:
mooke: Now, what would it mean if the chair that I'm sitting in doesn't inherently exist?
suergaz: It would mean nothing I could divine from the meanign of the words themselves, but since I'm not anti-poetical, I may stoop to understanding you to mean the chair you are sitting in is not the universe itself. I would also laugh at your understanding of the word inherent.
mooke: This simply shows me that you are using an overly restricted definition of the word inherent. I can't see why you do this, because you loved using all definitions of the word "indivisible" simultaneously. You are nothing if not inconsistent.
This is the whole of our argument. Existence is not what it is if it is not existence-in-itself. I thought A=A (or what you call the law of non-contradiction) was something you understood how to implement?Quote:
mooke: what rule would all of existence have to follow in order to allow the manifestation of chairs that do not exist in themselves? (Hint: what is the opposite of existence? Of existence-in-itself?)
suergaz: There are no rules for non-existence, for nothing at all. In other words: A false rule.
mooke: Existence and existence-in-itself are different. The two question marks in the hint should have given away that there are two possible answers.
If the chair you're sitting in exists in any sense,The opposite of existence being non-existence, and the opposite of existence-in-itself being contingent existence (or a form of subjective existence if Sartre is to be believed, which he is not), the question does have an answer. It's very simple: in order for chairs to manifest in such a manner, their existence (and the existence of anything) would have to be contingent. This means, related to everything else. And since the only meaningful relationships are causal (or anticausal, like in The Butterfly Effect), such would be the case only if the entire universe was causal.So: if the chair I am sitting in does not inherently exist, then the world must be causal.
it exists inherently, and that is because the world is causal.
:DYou're lucky, because this is as far as I've gotten. I haven't proven the implication the other way. I haven't yet developed a logical proof that proves causality likewise implies lack of inherent existence.
No. I don't think anyone has the nerve to formally train me in logic. :DQuote: suergaz:
You sound clever, and wise. Do I really sound stupid? I know I must at least sound foolish.
mooke:Thanks. You sound stupid in the same way I'd call someone who just started to learn calculus stupid; that is, unfairly. You seem overwhelmed by logic, and make silly mistakes that blink like big flashing red lights to my jaded eye. As hard as it is to help someone see their mistakes in the ideal situation (that is, reading their work over with them over a pot of tea), it can be frustrating over the internet. You would benefit immensely from a course in logic. Would I be wrong in believing that you've never had formal training in the subject?