a few questions

Discussion of the nature of Ultimate Reality and the path to Enlightenment.
Kevin Solway
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Re: a few questions

Post by Kevin Solway »

hades wrote:
Appearances are really there. That goes for the appearance of wisdom, and the appearance of delusion. If you are wise you will not project anything unreal on top of these appearances. But if you are deluded you will.
I think if you deconstruct wisdom and appearances in an honest way you will reach the same singularity that delusion an illusions reach. They must all be equal in reality.
Yes, but there is no way that living human beings can avoid valuing things. It is natural for us to value, in the same way that it is natural for other things to do what they do.

For example, you are currently valueing some point that you are trying to make, call it "equality of value", against something else you value more lowly "disparity of values".
Then no wise man will bother claiming to be wise, and even if he did it would make no difference...
He would claim to be wise if he thought it wise to do so, which is to say that he thought it would be beneficial to others. A wise man has no other choice. And it would indeed make a difference to people if they responded to his claim in such a way that dispelled their delusions.
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confused

Post by hades »

I have another question. How can your principle that "everything lacks inherent existance" be compatible with the identity A=A ?
The law of identity is saying that things exist, and they exist in definite ways, and somehow have a definite nature. A tree is a tree, a car is a car, I am me, and you are you.



It seems like the principle negates any sort of identity in anything.

A can't be A because it is not even itself, it is a collection of other things. Like two diagonal lines connected at a point and another horizontal line in the middle.

And if we look in reality for something that has identity, we fall in the same hole. A car isn't really a car...it is a collection of parts and what not.

It would seem that your principle would have to support a law that says something like A is only A when not-A.


I don't think you can confrom to the laws of logic and still claim that things don't inherently exist as definite seperate things.
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Post by David Quinn »

An hallucination still has the identity of an hallucination, even though it is an hallucination.

A thing which lacks inherent existence still has the identity of a thing which lacks inherent existence.

A car made up of parts still has the identity of a car made up of parts. It isn't, say, a giraffe made up of parts.

A=A necessarily applies to anything which appears to exist, for whatever appears to exist will always appear to be what it appears to exist. The fact that these appearances lack inherent existence doesn't change this.

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Post by bert »

Hades you must belief in what Kevin says.
Belief is to make "one" more convincing.

Truth is not the truth of formula...

In eastern spirituality it is said that the "inner being conquers the outer"(body)

Do you lack inherent existence,Hades?Do you not have ideals?If yes,Do this ideals not affect you some way?Are you here by chance?Are you unTrue?
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Post by hades »

bert wrote:Hades you must belief in what Kevin says.
Belief is to make "one" more convincing.

Truth is not the truth of formula...

No, theres no reason that I 'must' believe in what anyone says.


And regarding their idea of infinity and totality, it is an irrational concept because it breaks the law of excluded middle, and once thats done it falls into a sea of incoherency.
In eastern spirituality it is said that the "inner being conquers the outer"(body)

Do you lack inherent existence,Hades?Do you not have ideals?If yes,Do this ideals not affect you some way?Are you here by chance?Are you unTrue?
I don't even understand why this notion that things 'lack inherent existance' is relevant...

It can't be taken seriously. That things are contingent upon other parts is obvious, so what? That doesn't take away from the things real existance, its not lacking anything because of that.



I understand the distinction between a mirage (A reflection of something that isn't there) and a reality.
But if you think reality is a mirage, that everything lacks inherent existance, and is simply a reflection of something that isn't there, then you will be stuck in an infinite regress, you will never be able to account for what is real vs what is illusion.

If you look at a cup, and say its not inherently a cup (whatever that means) because it is made up of parts that aren't-cups, you are being dishonest. You can't say what is a cup and whats not a cup, because the parts of the cup can be mirages too. And the parts that make up the parts are mirages too..etc
So by subscribing to that principle you've essentially lobotomized yourself.

I notice ksolway and quinn aren't fans of empiricism and truth based on sense-perception as I am, yet they always borrow from my system whenever they want to talk about anything.
How do you know a fountain lacks inherent existance? Because you used your senses and empiricism to detect and discriminate parts of that fountain. Perhaps a fountain is simply one necessary movement of a fundamental irreducible substance, and when you percieve its 'parts' that is just your dualistic discriminatory mind seperating things and creating false borders.....Perhaps the fountain has inherent existance...You can never tell unless you borrow from my worldview (that we can use sense data to arrive at truth)...

etc
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Post by David Quinn »

Well, it just shows that you can't force anyone to open their eyes if they don't want to open them .....

I'll give it one more go.

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Hades wrote:
No, theres no reason that I 'must' believe in what anyone says.

Agreed.

And regarding their idea of infinity and totality, it is an irrational concept because it breaks the law of excluded middle, and once thats done it falls into a sea of incoherency.

And yet here we all are, dwelling within the totality of all there is.

How do you account for this?

Imagine if someone were to say to you, "Hades, justice must be either yellow or a colour other than yellow." And you might reply, "You are misguided. Justice is neither yellow, nor a colour other yellow. It is wrong to even apply these terms to them." To which the fellow exclaims, "Ah ha! You are violating the Law of Excluded Middle. Gotcha!"

Somehow, you need to find a way to expand your imagination so that you can conceptualize the third alternative which lies beyond existence and non-existence. It is there and it is very real. But you'll never be able to do this if you insist on keeping your mind confined with the conventional/empirical mindset.

That's if you're actually interested, which I have my doubts.

I don't even understand why this notion that things 'lack inherent existance' is relevant...

That is very obvious.

It can't be taken seriously. That things are contingent upon other parts is obvious, so what? That doesn't take away from the things real existance, its not lacking anything because of that.

I understand the distinction between a mirage (A reflection of something that isn't there) and a reality.
But if you think reality is a mirage, that everything lacks inherent existance, and is simply a reflection of something that isn't there, then you will be stuck in an infinite regress, you will never be able to account for what is real vs what is illusion.
It's actually very easy, once you develop some philosophical expertise.

Be honest, mate, you're just a beginner in these matters and yet here you are, pontificating as though you were an expert. You're like a novice at the piano who tries a couple of simple tunes, fails, and then throws up his hands in hysteria and exclaims that no one can do it.

Things certainly appear to the senses. Their appearance is very real. And yet, when you begin to analyze the nature of these apperances, you begin to realize that you cannot find where they begin or end. The boundaries between them and other appearances are not really there. There is only a seamless continuum in Nature.

Nature alone is real; everything else is unreal.

If you look at a cup, and say its not inherently a cup (whatever that means) because it is made up of parts that aren't-cups, you are being dishonest.

Try this:

Clench your hand into a fist and look at it. The fist before you is very real. Now straighten your hand. Where did the fist go?

All things are essentially like this - very real, and yet not really there.

You can't say what is a cup and whats not a cup, because the parts of the cup can be mirages too. And the parts that make up the parts are mirages too..etc
So by subscribing to that principle you've essentially lobotomized yourself.
You're not understanding the principle well enough to be making this judgment.

The opposite is, in fact, the case. Keeping one's mind confined within the conventional, empirical mindet is a form of lobotomy. It requires one to discard large tracts of the mind.

Being a philosopher is the best of both worlds. You get to have everything that science has to offer, and you also get to have that marvelous realm of philosophic wisdom which lies beyond science.

I notice ksolway and quinn aren't fans of empiricism and truth based on sense-perception as I am, yet they always borrow from my system whenever they want to talk about anything.
How do you know a fountain lacks inherent existance? Because you used your senses and empiricism to detect and discriminate parts of that fountain.
As has been explained to you in the past, the reference to empirical phenomena, such as a water fountain, is purely for illustrative purposes. The actual proof that all things lack inherent existence is a strictly logical one, and here no reference to empirical phenomena is required.

Perhaps a fountain is simply one necessary movement of a fundamental irreducible substance, and when you percieve its 'parts' that is just your dualistic discriminatory mind seperating things and creating false borders.....Perhaps the fountain has inherent existance...You can never tell unless you borrow from my worldview (that we can use sense data to arrive at truth)...
You say this, even though you know that everything perceived through the senses is possibly an hallucination and that nothing can ever be conclusively demonstrated by empirical methods .....

You don't seem to be aware of the implications of your own philosophy.

Perhaps a fountain is simply one necessary movement of a fundamental irreducible substance,
Nature itself is the only irreducible substance there is.


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Post by LooF »

allo
do you say when time passes A is still A?
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Post by Kevin Solway »

LooF wrote:allo
do you say when time passes A is still A?
Only if whatever "A" is, hasn't changed. For example, the number 1 doesn't change over time, by definition.
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Post by Sapius »

ksolway wrote:
LooF wrote:allo
do you say when time passes A is still A?
Only if whatever "A" is, hasn't changed. For example, the number 1 doesn't change over time, by definition.
So, would you say that number 1, or any other thing defined, exists inherently?

I would say that A represents a thing at any particular given moment, and its our memory which gives anything its temporal conceptual continuity, otherwise, A of any given moment could not be the A of the next moment given that cause and effect cannot be stopped.
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Post by Sapius »

David to Hades;
You say this, even though you know that everything perceived through the senses is possibly an hallucination and that nothing can ever be conclusively demonstrated by empirical methods .....
What could be considered a purely empirical method that does not employ logic?

(It’s good to read a worthy discussion :)
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Post by hades »

DavidQuinn000 wrote:
Imagine if someone were to say to you, "Hades, justice must be either yellow or a colour other than yellow." And you might reply, "You are misguided. Justice is neither yellow, nor a colour other yellow. It is wrong to even apply these terms to them." To which the fellow exclaims, "Ah ha! You are violating the Law of Excluded Middle. Gotcha!"

Actually my hypothetical response wouldn't be a problem, the problem is in the question itself.
It is misleading. The question commits the fallacy of a false dichotomy and a category error....




There was a guest on your show once who also spotted this error you commit when talking about 'totality'

"Mitchell: Because they don't follow logically. The idea that things exists and does not exist violates the idea of the excluded middle, which is an old principle of logic."

You claim to be rational, yet your ideas do not harmonize with logic. I'm not judging, I'm just stating the facts. Perhaps you have some 'higher understanding' but I can't abandon reasoning yet.
Somehow, you need to find a way to expand your imagination so that you can conceptualize the third alternative which lies beyond existence and non-existence.
This is starting to sound a little like faith...irrationality...


Tell me about this 3rd option. What is it, and what belongs to it?

Also, prove it exists...Oh wait does it "exist"? Or does it belong to another 4th option. Perhaps it exists (completely) and neither exists nor not-exist while existing in a superimposed non-existant state of existing partially? :P








Be honest, mate, you're just a beginner in these matters and yet here you are, pontificating as though you were an expert. You're like a novice at the piano who tries a couple of simple tunes, fails, and then throws up his hands in hysteria and exclaims that no one can do it.


Yes, whatever, I don't care.
Things certainly appear to the senses. Their appearance is very real. And yet, when you begin to analyze the nature of these apperances, you begin to realize that you cannot find where they begin or end. The boundaries between them and other appearances are not really there. There is only a seamless continuum in Nature.
There are boundries, for example, when the end of a bus hits the beginning of your head, it is the end of you.



You say this, even though you know that everything perceived through the senses is possibly an hallucination and that nothing can ever be conclusively demonstrated by empirical methods .....

The illogic in this case is that of the fallacy of the stolen concept. I've been over this already. The only reason you even consider the possibility of anything being a hallucination is because you have perceived things at a previous occasion that were NOT hallucinations and taken to be true.

You can't deny the validity of sense-perception absolutely, because you must always appeal to sense-perception when refuting it. Its circular reasoning.
You don't seem to be aware of the implications of your own philosophy.

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Things aren't always what they seem to be.
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Post by bert »

No, theres no reason that I 'must' believe in what anyone says.
Off course not.All I want to say is:It is the only way you can stomach the stuff.It is the only way Kevin has stomached the stuff - by believing.

Kevin teaches religion.all religions are evil.They always give a wrong self-righteousness.
Kevin prefers only one reality,for him the so-called truth.He praises so-called truth,but gives it many containers.Forgetting its dependence he proves its relationship and paradox,the song of experience and illusion.
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Post by David Quinn »

Hades wrote:
DQ: Imagine if someone were to say to you, "Hades, justice must be either yellow or a colour other than yellow." And you might reply, "You are misguided. Justice is neither yellow, nor a colour other yellow. It is wrong to even apply these terms to them." To which the fellow exclaims, "Ah ha! You are violating the Law of Excluded Middle. Gotcha!"

H: Actually my hypothetical response wouldn't be a problem, the problem is in the question itself.
It is misleading. The question commits the fallacy of a false dichotomy and a category error....
Exactly, it is a category error. In the same way, applying the terms "existence" or "non-existence" to the Totality involves a category error.

There was a guest on your show once who also spotted this error you commit when talking about 'totality'

"Mitchell: Because they don't follow logically. The idea that things exists and does not exist violates the idea of the excluded middle, which is an old principle of logic."
Well, the way Mitchell phrases it here, the law being violated here is actually the Law of Non-Contradiction. A thing cannot both exist and not-exist at the same time. That is a contradiction, which is a different matter.

Mitchell also makes the mistake of assuming that what applies to "things" is also applicable to a non-thing like the Totality.

So not only is he sloppy in his phrasing, but his thinking on this issue isn't very logical at all.

You claim to be rational, yet your ideas do not harmonize with logic. I'm not judging, I'm just stating the facts. Perhaps you have some 'higher understanding' but I can't abandon reasoning yet.

More accurately, you are not ready to abandon your conventional, empirical mindset. I do have a "higher understanding", but nevertheless it still falls within the realm of reason. It is higher than the conventional, empirical outlook, but not higher than reason.

DQ: Somehow, you need to find a way to expand your imagination so that you can conceptualize the third alternative which lies beyond existence and non-existence.

H: I don't need imagination, I can imagine all sorts of strange things...In this case I choose to rely on logic

We both rely on logic. However, your logic is currently being hampered by mental blocks.

DQ: Things certainly appear to the senses. Their appearance is very real. And yet, when you begin to analyze the nature of these apperances, you begin to realize that you cannot find where they begin or end. The boundaries between them and other appearances are not really there. There is only a seamless continuum in Nature.

H: There are boundries, for example, when the end of a bus hits the beginning of your head, it is the end of you.

Unfortunately, there is no "me" to begin with, and so this ending you are conceiving of is entirely in your imagination. Everything in Nature is a seamless flow, even buses crashing into humans.

DQ: You say this, even though you know that everything perceived through the senses is possibly an hallucination and that nothing can ever be conclusively demonstrated by empirical methods .....

H: The illogic in this case is that of the fallacy of the stolen concept. I've been over this already. The only reason you even consider the possibility of anything being a hallucination is because you have perceived things at a previous occasion that were NOT hallucinations and taken to be true.

I don't see how this is relevant. If something is taken to be true, it doesn't automatically mean that it is not a hallucination. For I could be mistaken in believing that it is true.

I may have started out in life believing that what I experience in the world is ultimately real, but through experience, and subsequently through reasoning, I have discovered that I have no way of determining whether my experiences are an hallucination or not. This alone casts all empirical theorizing into doubt. It is impossible for me to get around this. It is a brute fact of my existence. It is a brute fact of everyone's existence.

You can't deny the validity of sense-perception absolutely, because you must always appeal to sense-perception when refuting it. Its circular reasoning.
The problem is, I don't refer to sense-perceptions when refuting it. Rather, I simply confine myself to pointing out the logical implications of the fact that sense-perceptions are all we ever have to gain information about the world. This means that we have no means of validatating our sense-perceptions in any way.

We cannot validate a sense-perception by refering to other sense-perceptions - for that would be circular. But nor can we go beyond the realm of sense-perception and find some sort of external means of validation. Both ways are out, which means that sense-perceptions can never be validated.

It's comical really, but the very thing you accuse me of - namely, engaging in circular reasoning - is, in fact, the very thing you are doing in your attempt to hang onto sense-perceptions and the empirical mindset.

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Post by David Quinn »

bert wrote:
Kevin teaches religion.all religions are evil.They always give a wrong self-righteousness.
I agree that all religions are evil, but valuing truth isn't a religion. If you think it is, then there is something seriously wrong with you.

Kevin prefers only one reality,for him the so-called truth.He praises so-called truth,but gives it many containers.Forgetting its dependence he proves its relationship and paradox,the song of experience and illusion.

You do exactly the same thing, bert. You confine yourself to one reality - namely, the postmodernist reality.

God, I hate hypocrisy.


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Post by David Quinn »

Sapius,
DQ: You say this, even though you know that everything perceived through the senses is possibly an hallucination and that nothing can ever be conclusively demonstrated by empirical methods .....

S: What could be considered a purely empirical method that does not employ logic?

There's no such thing, of course. Any method of investigation, empirical or otherwise, always utilizes logic to some extent.

Logic, however, cannot perform miracles. If the information it uses as premises is uncertain (as empirical information always is), then the conclusions it spits out will always be just as uncertain.

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Post by Kevin Solway »

Sapius wrote:So, would you say that number 1, or any other thing defined, exists inherently?
No. Defined things are dependent on being defined.
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Post by bert »

DavidQuinn000 wrote:bert wrote:
Kevin teaches religion.all religions are evil.They always give a wrong self-righteousness.
I agree that all religions are evil, but valuing truth isn't a religion. If you think it is, then there is something seriously wrong with you.
About this truth:He praises so-called truth,but gives it many containers.Forgetting its dependence he proves its relationship and paradox,the song of experience and illusion.

I too know of his truth,hence I do not value it as Truth as he does.
Existence is alogical to any 'logic' we know,so it is irrational to attempt to rationalize,except in cases of our own prejudices which inform our mentation.

Kevin prefers only one reality,for him the so-called truth.He praises so-called truth,but gives it many containers.Forgetting its dependence he proves its relationship and paradox,the song of experience and illusion.

You do exactly the same thing, bert. You confine yourself to one reality - namely, the postmodernist reality.

God, I hate hypocrisy.


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Those damn jumpers to conclusions.

I belief in the power of belief.

I learn about the multiplicity of all things - of the gods,of the milliard millionth.

It feels like a miracle that I know of all these things.

But know this:
The deepest secret is always hidden even though they scream it from rooftops or puts them within the public.
Do not follow me;you will become your own enemy.Go labour,fulfill the disgust of becoming yourself!

Thou art the way!!!!
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Post by Sapius »

David wrote;
Logic, however, cannot perform miracles. If the information it uses as premises is uncertain (as empirical information always is), then the conclusions it spits out will always be just as uncertain.
So how about cause and effect? How did you arrive at that? How certain are you about it?

And to Hades
I may have started out in life believing that what I experience in the world is ultimately real, but through experience, and subsequently through reasoning, I have discovered that I have no way of determining whether my experiences are an hallucination or not. This alone casts all empirical theorizing into doubt.
I understand the " and subsequently through reasoning", but what kind of experiences preceded it?

Is it not true that empirical information is all that we have, and that they play a crucial part in reaching any logical conclusion? I don't see how one could purely use just logic, for even that, wouldn't one have to be an empirical thing first, to think it.
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Post by Sapius »

ksolway wrote:
Sapius wrote:So, would you say that number 1, or any other thing defined, exists inherently?
No. Defined things are dependent on being defined.
...hence that makes it timeless? Like Ultimate Reality? Ultimate Truth?
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Post by David Quinn »

bert wrotre:
I too know of his truth,hence I do not value it as Truth as he does.
Don't deceive yourself. You make it plain in your behaviour on this forum that you have no idea what Kevin means when he uses the word "Truth".

Why do postmodernists always insist that they understand utterly everything, including the nature of enlightenment and wisdom, when their behaviour clearly indicates otherwise? I'm sure there are deep psychological reasons for it. It's as though they can't stand the thought of anyone being above them in any way.

Postmodernism is the easiest means for the mediocre to pull the carpet from underneath all those who tower above them. It's no surprise that it has become so popular.

Existence is alogical to any 'logic' we know,so it is irrational to attempt to rationalize,except in cases of our own prejudices which inform our mentation.
If existence was truly alogical, then you would have no way of formulating any conclusions about existence at all - not even the conclusion that existence is alogical.

The deepest secret is always hidden even though they scream it from rooftops or puts them within the public.
Do not follow me;you will become your own enemy.Go labour,fulfill the disgust of becoming yourself!

Thou art the way!!!!
If you really believed this, then why are you writing on a public forum urging people to develop in a particular way.

Man, you are riddled with hypocrisy from top to botttom.


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Post by sevens »

Bert!

I have nothing to say to you!

You make me smile.

Like Richard Fey(n-man)!

May your reflection rock to the stars!
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Post by sevens »

David,

You're shadow-boxing!

Did you know it?

We all contain multitudes!

In our subconscious.
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Post by David Quinn »

Sapius,
DQ: Logic, however, cannot perform miracles. If the information it uses as premises is uncertain (as empirical information always is), then the conclusions it spits out will always be just as uncertain.

S: So how about cause and effect? How did you arrive at that? How certain are you about it?
I arrived at the idea initially through my experiences of the empirical world - i.e. through observing with my senses that everything seems to unfold in a causal manner. And then, from this, I was able to prove it beyond all doubt using pure logic.

How certain am I about it? Well, since it is a purely defintional truth, with no reliance on empirical data in any way, I am 100% certain.

DQ: I may have started out in life believing that what I experience in the world is ultimately real, but through experience, and subsequently through reasoning, I have discovered that I have no way of determining whether my experiences are an hallucination or not. This alone casts all empirical theorizing into doubt.

S: I understand the " and subsequently through reasoning", but what kind of experiences preceded it?
Oh, you know, the usual experiences one has in life. For example, the experience of growing up and having one's theories and perceptions change as one gains new information. There is also the experiences one has with optical illusions - e.g. mirages, momentary mistakes in perception, optical tricks performed by magicians and mathematicians, natural illusions such as the sun appearing to orbit the earth, etc. Also, experiences with science fiction stories which explore the realm of virtual reality, computer simulations, the possibility that the world is a dream, etc. And also experiences with marijuana and LSD which can drive home just how powerful the mind is in shaping what we experience.

All these things can lead to the idea that the senses can't really be trusted, that everything we experience could be an hallucination of some kind. We can then subject this idea to logical analysis to determine whether it is actually true or not.

Is it not true that empirical information is all that we have, and that they play a crucial part in reaching any logical conclusion? I don't see how one could purely use just logic, for even that, wouldn't one have to be an empirical thing first, to think it.
We're not just beings who experience sense-perceptions of the empirical world. We are also capable of abstract thought-processes. And it is through this latter capacity that we can formulate definitions which are 100% abstract and certain, and, from this, conclusions which are 100% certain.

One of the great skills of the first-rate philosopher is knowing how to create definitions which are not only 100% certain, but also have a meaningful relationship to everything in reality, including all of our sense-perceptions. It's a rare skill, but necessary for those who want to gain ultimate knowledge of reality.

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Post by David Quinn »

sevens wrote:
Like Richard Fey(n-man)!
I remember writing about the mediocrity of Richard Feynman to Phillip Adams, an Australian public intellectual, back in 1993.

http://www.theabsolute.net/minefield/adams.html

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Post by sevens »

He was mediocore, by your standards (which ain't bad standards, yeah). But, his brilliance for sussing out Nature's 'nectar' is unparalled. I would like to catch such a ray.

S.
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